I have a question about where to use is and has. Examples: Tea is come or Tea has come Lunch is ready or Lunch has ready He is come back or He has come back She is assigned for work or ...
The answer in both instances is 'have'. It is ungrammatical to use 'has' in questions that begin with 'Do' or 'Does'. In these types of questions the verb 'do' is conjugated based on whether the noun is first, second or third person (eg Do I, Do you or , Does he). The 'have' part of the question is not conjugated and appears as the bare infinitive regardless of the person of the noun.
He has the bottle. They have the bottle For questions or special emphasis you use an auxiliary verb (-> finite) together with a verb in the infinitive: He does play cricket. Do they like cricket? So yes, in these cases "do" becomes "does" for third person singular because it is finite.
Which of the following is correct (and, most importantly, why)? A glimmer of light after what have been long weeks of darkness. A glimmer of light after what has been long weeks of darkness. (The
I have read a similar question here but that one talks about the usage of has/have with reference to "anyone". Here, I wish to ask a question of the form: Does anyone has/have a black pen? What ...
The contraction is possible. It has got four legs The verb is "has got", and has is an auxiliary. The contraction is possible. This is how we tend to use contractions when speaking fairly carefully. When speaking quickly, "has" as a main verb tends to be reduced to /əz/ (especially in British accents) This might be written as "'s".
Does she have a child? Has she a child? In American English, you need to use the auxiliaries do and does with the main verb have to form a question in the present tense. In British English, you can use either the do and does with have or the main verb have only as in the second sentence to form a question. So the second sentence that starts with the verb have is correct in formal BrE.
What are the differences in meaning between the following sentences? All of the sentences below convey the meaning of compulsion of exercise to be carried out in three months. a) This exercise has...
The subject of have is videos and pictures, which is a compound of two plural nouns. The correct verb form is have. That's the rule: It has, and they have.
Has Trump's political views changed on Israel's war in Gaza? Another user felt it wasn't grammatically correct: Nitpick: shouldn't the title be “Have Trump's political views…”, what with ‘views’ being plural? I can never remember all the rules of English grammar. Which sentence is correct? (An older question - Has or Have?
